TIP: SLEEPING WITH A STEROID USER

01dragonslayer

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ASKING FOR A FRIEND...​

Here's a question we received recently:

"If a woman has sex with a guy who's using steroids, is she in danger of failing a drug test?"






This is a question that probably goes through every woman's mind the moment she decides to copulate with a gearhead. She probably can't help but wonder if she's going to wake up with a beard and a puzzling urge to check her NCAA bracket.

As far as transmission of steroids through intercourse, it's possible that a tiny bit of hormone catches a ride in the spermatic fluid.

After all, untainted prostatic fluid normally contains trace amounts of estrogen, FSH, and testosterone anyhow, along with a good number of prostaglandins. It's even been hypothesized that the vagina absorbs some of these prostaglandins, and since prostaglandins modulate neurotransmitters, they can possibly improve a woman's mood.



However, even if there were steroids in seminal fluid, it's pretty much impossible that the 2 to 5 cc's of seminal fluid in the average ejaculation would contain enough steroids to budge the needle on a sex partner's drug test. And even if the fluid did contain some steroids, the contact between the juiced juice and vaginal tissues is usually brief because of plain ol' fluid dynamics (liquid flows downhill).

"ORAL" BIOAVAILABILITY​

Much of the same is true of oral sex with a steroid user. While there was recently a report of a woman going into anaphylactic shock and almost dying because she swallowed some amoxicillin-tainted sperm (she was allergic to penicillin and its analogs), steroids are a different situation.

It only takes a few molecules of something to elicit an allergic reaction, but absorbing a detectable amount of steroid through oral sex is probably impossible.

For one thing, if the steroid in question is testosterone, you'd have to absorb at least 200 mg. of the hormone for it to overcome the first pass effect of the liver. That's generally a whole cc of testosterone, which would mean that half of the volume of the hypothetical steroid user's semen was steroid. Not very likely.

Other steroids are built to survive the first pass effect, but still, there's no way the semen would contain enough steroids for anyone to fail a drug test, or experience any steroidal effects at all.
 

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